What are nerve cells and nerve impulses? - ExamTest 1

Questions

Question 1

The two kinds of cells in the nervous system are ___, which receive and transmit information to other cells, and ___ which do not transmit information.

1. Neurons, glia
2. Glia, hypoglia
3. Glia, neurons
4. Neurons, corpuscles

Question 2

The outer surface of a cell is called the ___ and the fluid inside the cell is the ___.

1. Cytoplasm, endoplasm
2. Membrane, nuclear fluid
3. Wall, goo
4. Membrane, cytoplasm

Question 3

Which part of a neuron contains the nucleus?

1. Cell body
2. Dendrites
3. Axon
4. Presynaptic ending

Question 4

Neurons have one ___, but can have any number of ___.

1. Dendrite, axons
2. Axon, dendrites
3. Cell body, axons
4. Axon hillock, cell bodies

Question 5

As a general rule, axons convey information ___.

1. Toward dendrites of their own cell.
2. Toward their own cell body.
3. Away from the cell body.
4. To glia.

Question 6

What is an interneuron?

1. A glia cell that separates one neuron from another.
2. A neuron that receives all its information from other neurons and conveys impulses only to other neurons.
3. A neuron that has its cell body in the spinal cord and an axon that extends to a muscle or gland.
4. A cell whose properties are halfway between those of a neuron and those of a glia cell.

Question 7

A neuron that conveys information toward the hippocampus is considered a (an) ___ cell, with regard to the hippocampus.

1. Afferent
2. Efferent
3. Intrinsic
4. Motor

Question 8

A neuron that conveys information away from the hippocampus is considered a (an) ___ cell, with regard to the hippocampus.

1. Afferent
2. Efferent
3. Intrinsic
4. Sensory

Question 9

In the human brain, glia cells are ___.

1. Larger than neurons.
2. Capable of transmitting impulses when neurons fail to do so.
3. More numerous than neurons.
4. Like neurons, except that they lack axons.

Question 10

What is one function not performed by glia?

1. Remove waste materials.
2. Build myelin sheaths.
3. Transmit information.
4. Guide the growth of axons and dendrites.

Question 11

The difference in voltage between the inside and the outside of a neuron that typically exists is called the ___.

1. Concentration gradient.
2. Generator potential.
3. Resting potential.
4. Shock value.

Question 12

What is meant by the term ‘concentration gradient’?

1. Sodium ions are more concentrated inside the cell and potassium ions are more concentrated outside.
2. Potassium ions are more concentrated inside the cell and sodium ions are more concentrated outside.
3. Sodium ions are more concentrated in the dendrites and potassium ions are more concentrated in the axon.
4. Potassium ions are more concentrated in the dendrites and sodium ions are more concentrated in the axon.

Question 13

The sodium potassium pump pumps sodium ions ___ and potassium ions ___.

1. Into the cell, into the cell
2. Into the cell, out of the cell
3. Out of the cell, out of the cell
4. Out of the cell, into the cell

Question 14

The sodium potassium pump makes which of the following features of a neuron possible?

1. Refractory period.
2. Resting potential.
3. Selective permeability.
4. Saltatory conduction.

Question 15

When the neuron is at rest, which of the following forces tends to move potassium ions out of the cell?

1. Concentration gradient.
2. Electrical gradient.
3. Both concentration gradient and electrical gradient.
4. Sodium potassium pump.

Question 16

If a stimulus shifts the potential inside a neuron from the resting potential to a more negative potential, the result is ___.

1. Hyperpolarization.
2. Depolarization.
3. An action potential.
4. A threshold.

Question 17

If a stimulus shifts the potential inside a neuron from the resting potential to a potential slightly closer to zero, the result is known as ___.

1. Hyperpolarization.
2. Depolarization.
3. Selective permeability.
4. The refractory period.

Question 18

A membrane produces an action potential whenever the potential across it reaches ___.

1. The resting potential.
2. 90 mV.
3. The threshold.
4. The myelin sheath.

Question 19

According to the all-or-none law, ___.

1. Every depolarization produces an action potential.
2. Every hyperpolarization produces an action potential.
3. The size of the action potential is independent of the strength of the stimulus that initiated it.
4. Every depolarization reaches the threshold, even if it fails to produce an action potential.

Question 20

For a given neuron, the resting potential is 70 mV and the threshold is 55 mV. Stimulus A depolarizes the membrane to exactly 55 mV. Stimulus B depolarizes the membrane to 40 mV. What can we expect to happen?

1. Stimulus A will produce an action potential of greater amplitude than stimulus B.
2. Stimulus A will produce an action potential that is conducted at a faster speed than that of stimulus B.
3. Stimulus B will produce an action potential and stimulus A will not.
4. Stimulus A and stimulus B will produce action potentials of the same size.

Question 21

During the entire course of events from the start of an action potential until the membrane returns to its resting potential, the net movement of ions is ___.

1. Sodium in, potassium in
2. Sodium out, potassium out
3. Sodium in, potassium out
4. Sodium out, potassium in

Question 22

What is the refractory period of a neuron?

1. A period in which the sodium gates of the membrane are open.
2. A period in which the sodium potassium pump is active.
3. A period in which a usually adequate stimulus cannot produce an action potential.
4. A period in which both the sodium gates and the potassium gates are fully closed.

Question 23

Most action potentials begin ___.

1. In the dendrites.
2. In the cell body.
3. At the axon hillock.
4. At the tip of the axon.

Question 24

The velocity of an action potential is ___.

1. The same as the velocity of electricity.
2. Approximately the speed of sound.
3. 1100 m/sec.
4. Impossible to measure.

Question 25

The function of a myelin sheath is to ___.

1. Prevent action potentials from traveling in the wrong direction.
2. Increase the velocity of transmission along an axon.
3. Increase the magnitude of an action potential.
4. Enable an action potential in one cell to influence the transmission in other cells.

Question 26

What are the nodes of Ranvier?

1. Gates in the membrane that admit all ions freely.
2. Branching points in an axon.
3. Places where dendrites join the cell body.
4. Interruptions in the myelin sheath.

Answers

Question 1

A. Neurons, glia.

Question 2

D. Membrane, cytoplasm.

Question 3

A. Cell body.

Question 4

B. Axon, dendrites.

Question 5

C. Away from the cell body .

Question 6

B. A neuron that receives all its information from other neurons and conveys impulses only to other neurons.

Question 7

A. Afferent.

Question 8

B. Efferent.

Question 9

C. More numerous than neurons.

Question 10

C. Transmit information.

Question 11

C. Resting potential.

Question 12

B. Potassium ions are more concentrated inside the cell and sodium ions are more concentrated outside.

Question 13

D. Out of the cell, into the cell.

Question 14

B. Resting potential.

Question 15

A. Concentration gradient.

Question 16

A. Hyperpolarization.

Question 17

B. Depolarization.

Question 18

C. The threshold

Question 19

C. The size of the action potential is independent of the strength of the stimulus that initiated it.

Question 20

D. Stimulus A and stimulus B will produce action potentials of the same size.

Question 21

C. Sodium in, potassium out.

Question 22

C. A period in which a usually adequate stimulus cannot produce an action potential.

Question 23

C. At the axon hillock.

Question 24

C. 1100 m/sec.

Question 25

B. Increase the velocity of transmission along an axon.

Question 26

D. Interruptions in the myelin sheath.

What is the function of synapses? - ExamTest 2

Questions

Question 1

Where does the abbreviation EPSP stand for?

1. Extra psychic sensory perception.
2. Exterior partial sensory process.
3. End point stationary physiology.
4. Excitatory post synaptic potential.

Question 2

What is an EPSP?

1. Graded depolarization.
2. Depolarization alternating rapidly with a hyperpolarization.
3. Graded hyperpolarization.
4. Cancelling out of competing effects.

Question 3

Spatial summation refers to ___.

1. Adding two stimuli from the same source that occurred at different times.
2. The decrease in responsiveness by a neuron that has been stimulated repeatedly.
3. Adding two stimuli from different sources at the same time.
4. A progressive increase in the magnitude of action potentials in a given axon over time.

Question 4

What is an IPSP?

1. Location where a dendrite branches.
2. Interruption in a myelin sheath.
3. Subthreshold depolarization.
4. Temporary hyperpolarization.

Question 5

The synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules takes place ___.

1. In the bloodstream.
2. In the cell body.
3. In the presynaptic terminal.
4. In either the cell body or the presynaptic terminal, depending on the particular neurotransmitter.

Question 6

When an action potential reaches the end of an axon, the depolarization causes what ionic movement?

1. Bicarbonate out of the presynaptic cell.
2. Lithium out of the presynaptic cell.
3. Iron into the cell.
4. Calcium into the cell.

Question 7

What is the synaptic cleft?

1. The gap between the presynaptic neuron and the postsynaptic neuron.
2. A packet that stores molecules of the synaptic transmitter.
3. A subthreshold depolarization.
4. A dietary precursor to the synthesis of a synaptic transmitter.

Answers

Question 1

D. Excitatory post synaptic potential.

Question 2

A. Graded depolarization.

Question 3

C. Adding two stimuli from different sources at the same time.

Question 4

D. Temporary hyperpolarization.

Question 5

D. In either the cell body or the presynaptic terminal, depending on the particular neurotransmitter.

Question 6

D. Calcium into the cell.

Question 7

A. The gap between the presynaptic neuron and the postsynaptic neuron.

What does the human vertebrate nervous system look like? - ExamTest 3

Questions

Question 1

The occipital lobe is at the ___ of the brain.

1. Anterior
2. Superior
3. Posterior

Question 2

What isn’t part of the subcortical areas?

1. Hypothalamus.
2. Amygdala.
3. Hippocampus.

Question 3

What is the function of the sympathetic nervous system?

1. It prepares the organs for a resting moment.
2. It prepares the organs for activity.
3. It prepares the organs for both activity and resting.

Question 4

The cerebellum has different functions. Which is not a function of the cerebellum?

1. It plays a role in movement.
2. It plays a role in sensory perception.
3. It plays a role in balance and coordination.

Question 5

The prefrontal cortex ___.

1. Is important for the long-term memory.
2. Is important for working memory.
3. Is important for sensory memory.

Question 6

How does fMRI work?

1. It measures electrical brain activity by electrodes.
2. It shows an image of the brain by measuring blood flow with magnetic fields.
3. It measures radioactivity of injected chemicals.

Answers

Question 1

C. Posterior.

Question 2

A. Hypothalamus

Question 3

B. It prepares the organs for activity.

Question 4

B. It plays a role in sensory perception.

Question 5

B. Is important for working memory.

Question 6

B. It shows an image of the brain by measuring blood flow with magnetic fields.

How did the human vertebrate nervous system develop throughout evolution? - ExamTest 4

Questions

Question 1

What is the sequence of creating new connections?

1. Proliferation- migration- differentiation- synaptogenesis.
2. Differentiation- migration- proliferation- synaptogenesis.
3. Migration- proliferation- synaptogenesis- differentiation.

Question 2

What happens when an axon no longer receives nerve growth factor (NGF)?

1. The axon won’t be able to grow further.
2. The axon will deteriorate and his cell body will die.
3. The axon will lose its power in the process of communication.

Question 3

When there is a blood clot in the artery, it’s called ___.

1. Edema.
2. Bleeding.
3. Ischemia.

Question 4

What is incorrect?

1. On the DNA there are chromosomes.
2. The genes are in every cell nucleus of the body.
3. There are 23 chromosome pairs.

Question 5

What is true about RNA?

1. RNA is like DNA, but exists independently.
2. RNA is one string of DNA.
3. The function of RNA is to deconstruct unnecessary proteins.

Question 6

What isn’t true about evolution?

1. Evolution enhances the genes.
2. Evolution means successfully giving the genes to the next generations.
3. When a body part is not being used that often, it will be less present in the next generations.

Answers

Question 1

A. Proliferation- migration- differentiation- synaptogenesis.

Question 2

B. The axon will deteriorate and his cell body will die.

Question 3

C. Ischemia.

Question 4

A. On the DNA there are chromosomes.

Question 5

B. RNA is one string of DNA.

Question 6

C. When a body part is not being used that often, it will be less present in the next generations.

How does visual perception work in the human brain? - ExamTest 5

Questions

Question 1

In many ways the eye is analogous to a camera. The light sensitive surface in the back of the eye that would correspond to the film in a camera is the ___.

1. Pupil.
2. Retina.
3. Blind spot.
4. Vitreous humour.

Question 2

Where are the rods and cones of the eye located?

1. Retina.
2. Pupil.
3. Optic nerve.
4. Cornea.

Question 3

The fovea is the part of the retina ___.

1. With the greatest perception of detail.
2. That surrounds the point of exit of the optic nerve.
3. That falls in the shadow cast by the pupil.
4. That has only rods, not cones.

Question 4

If you want to see something in fine detail, you should focus the light on which part of your retina?

1. Optic nerve.
2. Fovea.
3. Part containing mostly rods.
4. Cornea.

Question 5

Why is the blind spot of the retina blind?

1. It is on the border between the area with rods and the area with cones.
2. It is the point where the optic nerve leaves the retina and there are no rods or cones.
3. It is in the shadow of the pupil.
4. Activity of the receptors is silenced by excessive lateral inhibition.

Question 6

The perception of colour depends on ___.

1. Rods.
2. Cones.
3. Both rods and cones.
4. Neither rods nor cones.

Question 7

In comparison to the cones, the rods are ___.

1. More concentrated in the fovea.
2. More sensitive to dim light.
3. More important for colour vision.
4. More sensitive to detail.

Question 8

According to the Young Helmholtz theory, colour vision is based on ___.

1. A different receptor for each colour.
2. Three kinds of receptors.
3. A single receptor that produces different responses for each colour.
4. The combined influences of rods and cones.

Question 9

In the most common form of colour blindness people have difficulty distinguishing between what two colours?

1. Blue and yellow.
2. Green and blue.
3. Red and green.
4. Hot pink and neon yellow.

Question 10

Males are ___ likely to be colour blind compared to females.

1. Less
2. Equally
3. More
4. Much less

Question 11

Lateral inhibition refers to ___.

1. The effects of autoreceptors on the presynaptic membrane.
2. The reduction of activity in one neuron by activity in a neighbouring neuron.
3. The reduction of activity in one neuron due to inactivity in neighbouring neurons.
4. The opposite effects of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

Question 12

In which layer of the retina is visual information coded in series of action potentials?

1. In the layer of the receptor cells.
2. In the layer of the bipolar cells.
3. In the layer of the horizontal cells.
4. In the layer of the ganglion cells.

Question 13

The function of the horizontal cells in the retina is related to ___.

1. Colour vision.
2. Depth perception.
3. Perception of brightness.
4. Increase of contrast.

Question 14

Where is the receptive field of a lateral geniculate cell located?

1. In the retina.
2. In the midbrain.
3. In the thalamus.
4. In the cerebral cortex.

Question 15

The three types of cells in the primary visual cortex are known as ___.

1. Simple, complex, and hypercomplex.
2. W, X, and Y.
3. Bipolar, ganglion, and horizontal.
4. Inferior, middle, and superior.

Answers

Question 1

B. Retina.

Question 2

A. Retina.

Question 3

A. With the greatest perception of detail.

Question 4

B. Fovea.

Question 5

B. It is the point where the optic nerve leaves the retina and there are no rods or cones.

Question 6

B. Cones.

Question 7

B. More sensitive to dim light.

Question 8

B. Three kinds of receptors.

Question 9

C. Red and green.

Question 10

C. More

Question 11

B. The reduction of activity in one neuron by activity in a neighbouring neuron.

Question 12

D. In the layer of the ganglion cells.

Question 13

D. Increase of contrast.

Question 14

A. In the retina.

Question 15

A. Simple, complex, and hypercomplex.

How do the other senses work? - ExamTest 6

Questions

Question 1

According to the law of specific nerve energies, ___.

1. Electrical stimulation of the auditory nerve is perceived as sound.
2. A single nerve can convey either auditory or visual information, depending on the frequency of action potentials.
3. The brain has ways of inhibiting the activity of neurons that convey no useful information.
4. If one sensory system becomes inactive, others will compensate by increasing their activity.

Question 2

The intensity of a sound wave is its ___; the perception of that intensity is its ___.

1. Frequency, amplitude.
2. Loudness, tone.
3. Amplitude, pitch.
4. Amplitude, loudness.

Question 3

Suppose the highest pitch you can hear is about 20,000 Hz. Under what circumstances will that limit decrease?

1. It drops naturally as you grow older.
2. It drops if you go several months without listening to any high pitches.
3. It drops only as a result of injury or disease.
4. It drops if the diet is low in calcium.

Question 4

Three small bones connect the tympanic membrane to the oval window of the inner ear. The function of those bones is to ___.

1. Hold the tympanic membrane in place.
2. Convert air waves into waves of greater pressure.
3. Spread out the air waves over an area of a larger diameter.
4. Change the frequency of air waves to a frequency that can be heard.

Question 5

The cochlea is part of which sensory system?

1. Visual.
2. Auditory.
3. Somatosensory.
4. Olfactory.

Question 6

How are the receptor cells of the auditory system known?

1. Rods.
2. Cones.
3. Hair cells.
4. Pacinian corpuscles.

Question 7

"Every sound causes one location along the basilar membrane to resonate, and thereby excites neurons in that area." This is one way to state which theory about pitch perception?

1. Volley principle.
2. Frequency theory.
3. Place theory.
4. Opponent process theory.

Question 8

Damage to the cochlea, hair cells, or auditory nerve can produce ___.

1. Conductive deafness.
2. Nerve deafness.
3. Temporary deafness.
4. Hysterical deafness.

Question 9

Touch, pain, and other body sensations are known as ___ senses.

1. Primitive
2. Gustatory
3. Olfactory
4. Mechanical

Question 10

Which two sensory systems are based on the responses of hair cells?

1. Hearing and vision.
2. Hearing and vestibular sensation.
3. Olfaction and taste.
4. Temperature and pain.

Answers

Question 1

A. Electrical stimulation of the auditory nerve is perceived as sound.

Question 2

D. Amplitude, loudness.

Question 3

A. It drops naturally as you grow older.

Question 4

B. Convert air waves into waves of greater pressure.

Question 5

B. Auditory.

Question 6

C. Hair cells.

Question 7

C. Place theory.

Question 8

B. Nerve deafness.

Question 9

D. Mechanical

Question 10

B. Hearing and vestibular sensation.

How can the human brain control body movement? - ExamTest 7

Questions

Question 1

Which muscle is ‘antagonistic’ to a flexor muscle in the left leg?

1. A flexor muscle in the right leg.
2. An extensor muscle in the left leg.
3. An extensor muscle in the right leg.
4. Another flexor muscle in the right leg.

Question 2

Which of these disorders is commonly treated with LDOPA?

1. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
2. Parkinson's disease.
3. Huntington's disease.
4. Schizophrenia.

Question 3

Which would be especially important (i.e. used much more than normal) when you run up a flight of stairs at full speed?

1. Fast-twitch muscles.
2. Slow-twitch muscles.
3. Smooth muscles.
4. Intermediate muscles.

Question 4

What statement is valid regarding Parkinson's disease?

1. The cerebellum is affected, expressed in a tremor during rest.
2. The basal ganglia are affected, expressed in a tremor during rest.
3. The cerebellum is affected, expressed in an intention tremor.
4. The basal ganglia are affected, expressed in an intention tremor.

Question 5

The cerebellum is most important for ___.

1. Reflexive movements that use muscles on both sides of the body.
2. Slow movements guided by sensory feedback from previous movements.
3. Movements that require great physical strength.
4. Learned motor programs of ballistic movements.

Question 6

People who have suffered damage to the cerebellum ___.

1. Have to plan their movements one at a time, not as a smooth sequence.
2. Ignore feedback from previous movements when they are starting a new one.
3. Become paralyzed in certain parts of the body.
4. Can move normally except that they fatigue quickly.

Question 7

Tests for alcoholic intoxication resemble the tests for damage to the ___.

1. Temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex.
2. Cerebellum.
3. Spinal cord.
4. Basal ganglia.

Question 8

The caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus, substantia nigra, and subthalamic nucleus make up the ___.

1. Basal ganglia.
2. Limbic system.
3. Pyramidal system.
4. Parasympathetic nervous system.

Question 9

Following damage to the basal ganglia, people ___.

1. Are unable to move.
2. Continually move while awake.
3. Move inappropriately, failing to respond to instructions.
4. Have difficulty initiating movements.

Question 10

A common treatment for Parkinson's disease is a drug that ___.

1. Inhibits activity of the immune system.
2. Increases the brain's production of dopamine.
3. Blocks the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.
4. Facilitates the passage of sodium across neuron membranes.

Question 11

Which of the following is not common in people with Parkinson's disease?

1. Difficulty initiating voluntary movements.
2. Slowness of movements.
3. Rigidity and tremors.
4. Outbursts of emotional excitement.

Question 12

What is one of the main symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

1. Rapid fatigue of the muscles.
2. Loss of saccadic eye movements.
3. Difficulty initiating movements.

Answers

Question 1

B. An extensor muscle in the left leg.

Question 2

B. Parkinson's disease.

Question 3

A. Fast-twitch muscles.

Question 4

B. The basal ganglia are affected, expressed in a tremor during rest.

Question 5

D. Learned motor programs of ballistic movements.

Question 6

A. Have to plan their movements one at a time, not as a smooth sequence.

Question 7

B. Cerebellum.

Question 8

A. Basal ganglia.

Question 9

D. Have difficulty initiating movements.

Question 10

B. Increases the brain's production of dopamine.

Question 11

D. Outbursts of emotional excitement.

Question 12

C. Difficulty initiating movements.

What is sleep and why is it important for the human brain? - ExamTest 8

Questions

Question 1

What is a free running rhythm?

1. The activity level of an animal that does not have a biological clock.
2. The sleep pattern of someone who has just finished a period of sleep deprivation and who is now permitted to sleep without restrictions.
3. A pattern of activity that varies unpredictably from one day to the next.
4. The time cycle generated by a biological clock that is not reset.

Question 2

What is a Zeitgeber?

1. A biological clock.
2. An animal that does not have a biological clock.
3. A mechanism that resets a biological clock.
4. A body activity that is controlled by a biological clock.

Question 3

Under what circumstance is a person's circadian activity cycle most likely to drift out of phase with the activity of other people?

1. If the person spends a period of time in the forest, away from clocks.
2. If the person habitually eats a heavy meal just before bedtime.
3. If the person spends a period of time in a cave, away from sunlight.
4. If the person spends a period of time near the equator, where the seasons do not vary.

Question 4

If people live in an environment in which the cycle of light and dark is not 24 hours, ___.

1. Within a few days they adjust to waking and sleeping on the new schedule, whatever it is.
2. They adjust better if the cycle is some multiple of 24 (e.g. 48).
3. They adjust better if the cycle is close to 24 (e.g. 25).
4. They fail to adjust at all.

Question 5

What is the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus in the biological clock?

1. Its neurons generate a 24hour rhythm themselves.
2. Its neurons can reset the biological clock, but they do not generate it.
3. It relays visual information to the biological clock.
4. It relays information from the biological clock to the brain areas that control temperature and activity.

Question 6

What is a device that can be used to measure stages of sleep?

1. GSR.
2. EEG.
3. ACTH.
4. FSH.

Question 7

Alpha waves occur in an EEG record during ___.

1. Non-REM sleep.
2. Nightmares.
3. Relaxed wakefulness.
4. Periods of great excitement.

Question 8

REM sleep is synonymous with ___.

1. Alpha waves.
2. Stages 1 and 2.
3. Stages 3 and 4.
4. Paradoxical sleep.

Question 9

Stages 2, 3, and 4 differ in their ___.

1. Percentage of REM sleep.
2. Percentage of slow, low amplitude waves.
3. Body position.
4. Dependence on the synaptic transmitter serotonin.

Question 10

What is the contradiction in REM sleep?

1. The frequency of the brain waves is low, while the amplitude is high.
2. The brain is very active, while many of the muscles of the body are deeply relaxed.
3. Subcortical structures are very active, while the cerebral cortex is inactive.
4. Postural muscles are tense, while heart rate and breathing rate are very low.

Question 11

Facial twitches, finger twitches, and eye movements are most characteristic of ___.

1. Stage 1 sleep.
2. Stage 4 sleep.
3. NREM sleep.
4. REM sleep.

Question 12

Which of the following is not associated with REM sleep?

1. Increased probability of dreaming.
2. Difficulty to awaken the person.
3. EEG pattern resembling wakefulness.
4. Postural muscles tense and active.

Question 13

For a normal person, a cycle of sleep from stage 1 to stage 4 and back again to stage 1 lasts about ___.

1. 510 minutes.
2. 90-100 minutes.
3. 4 hours.
4. 78 hours.

Question 14

For a normal person, which part of a night's sleep contains the largest percentage of stage 4 sleep?

1. Early in the night’s sleep.
2. The middle of the night’s sleep.
3. Toward the end of the night.
4. All parts equally.

Question 15

Compared to the early part of a night's sleep, the later part ___.

1. Includes a larger percentage of REM sleep.
2. Includes a lower percentage of REM sleep.
3. Is characterized by declining body temperature.
4. Has more rapid cycles through the stages of sleep.

Question 16

What is the relationship between sleep stage and dreaming?

1. Dreams occur only in REM sleep.
2. Dreams occur only in non-REM sleep.
3. Dreams occur in both, but they are more frequent and more vivid in REM sleep.
4. Dreams occur in both, but they are more frequent and more vivid in non-REM sleep.

Question 17

PGO (as in PGO waves) is an abbreviation for ___.

1. Paradoxical gradual onset.
2. Psychogalvanic oscillation.
3. Pons geniculate occipital.
4. Professional Golf Organization.

Question 18

Narcolepsy is characterized by ___.

1. Inability to breathe while sleeping.
2. Involuntary movements of the limbs while sleeping.
3. Sudden periods of sleepiness during the day.
4. Sleepwalking.

Answers

Question 1

D. The time cycle generated by a biological clock that is not reset.

Question 2

C. A mechanism that resets a biological clock.

Question 3

C. If the person spends a period of time in a cave, away from sunlight.

Question 4

C. They adjust better if the cycle is close to 24 (e.g. 25).

Question 5

A. Its neurons generate a 24hour rhythm themselves.

Question 6

B. EEG.

Question 7

C. Relaxed wakefulness.

Question 8

D. Paradoxical sleep.

Question 9

B. Percentage of slow, low amplitude waves.

Question 10

B. The brain is very active, while many of the muscles of the body are deeply relaxed.

Question 11

D. REM sleep.

Question 12

D. Postural muscles tense and active.

Question 13

B. 90-100 minutes.

Question 14

A. Early in the night’s sleep.

Question 15

A. Includes a larger percentage of REM sleep.

Question 16

C. Dreams occur in both, but they are more frequent and more vivid in REM sleep.

Question 17

C. Pons geniculate occipital.

Question 18

C. Sudden periods of sleepiness during the day.

How does the human body regulate temperature, thirst and hunger? - ExamTest 9

Questions

Question 1

How do adult mammals with damage to the preoptic area regulate their body temperature?

1. Physiologically.
2. Pharmacologically.
3. Behaviorally.
4. Not at all.

Question 2

If an animal that lacks physiological mechanisms of temperature control gets an infection, it ___.

1. Gets cold instead of feverish.
2. Gets hot only at the point where the infection began.
3. Chooses a hotter environment and gets a fever behaviourally.
4. Recovers from the infection faster than animals that do control body temperature.

Question 3

Your posterior pituitary would be most likely to release antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ___.

1. If you are very thirsty.
2. Shortly after drinking a large glass of water.
3. If you are very hungry.
4. Shortly after eating a large meal.

Question 4

Most of the calories people consume are used ___.

1. To form new memory traces.
2. To propagate action potentials.
3. In exercise.
4. For basal metabolism.

Question 5

The hormone released by the posterior pituitary that causes your kidneys to reabsorb and conserve water is ___.

1. Antidiuretic hormone.
2. Insulin.
3. Luteinizing hormone.
4. Oxytocin.

Question 6

When does osmotic pressure of the body fluids increase?

1. When you drink a large glass of water.
2. When you excrete highly concentrated urine.
3. When you gain solutes (e.g. sodium chloride).
4. When you donate blood.

Question 7

When food distends the duodenum, the duodenum releases the hormone ___.

1. CCK.
2. Aldosterone.
3. Angiotensin II.
4. Prolactin.

Question 8

An injection of CCK ___.

1. Increases sodium appetite.
2. Leads to constriction of the blood vessels.
3. Decreases the size of the next meal.
4. Causes increased storage of food as fats.

Question 9

When insulin levels are high, ___.

1. Fat supplies are converted to glucose, which enters the blood.
2. Glucose entry into the cells increases.
3. The individual steadily loses weight.
4. Activity and energy levels increase.

Question 10

A homeostatic process is one that ___.

1. Is governed by hormones.
2. Maintains a variable within a fixed range.
3. Depends on a combination of two synaptic transmitters.
4. Regulates blood flow.

Question 11

If an animal's body temperature stays the same as that of the environment, it is said to be ___.

1. Homeostatic.
2. Homeothermic.
3. Poikilothermic.
4. Hypovolemic.

Question 12

One advantage of maintaining a constant body temperature is that it ___.

1. Enables the animal to stay equally active at all environmental temperatures.
2. Enables the animal to survive on a wider variety of diets.
3. Minimizes the energy that must be expended on basal metabolism.
4. Enables the animal to detect changes in the temperature of the environment.

Question 13

Which organisms, if any, use behavioural means to regulate their body temperature?

1. Poikilothermic, but not homeothermic.
2. Homeothermic, but not poikilothermic.
3. Both poikilothermic and homeothermic.
4. Neither poikilothermic nor homeothermic.

Answers

Question 1

C. Behaviorally.

Question 2

C. Chooses a hotter environment and gets a fever behaviourally.

Question 3

A. If you are very thirsty.

Question 4

D. For basal metabolism.

Question 5

A. Antidiuretic hormone.

Question 6

D. When you donate blood.

Question 7

D. Prolactin.

Question 8

A. Increases sodium appetite.

Question 9

D. Activity and energy levels increase.

Question 10

D. Regulates blood flow.

Question 11

C. Poikilothermic.

Question 12

C. Minimizes the energy that must be expended on basal metabolism.

Question 13

D. Neither poikilothermic nor homeothermic.

How can hormones influence sexual behaviour? - ExamTest 10

Questions

Question 1

The ___ system is the precursor of the fallopian tubes, uterus and vagina and the ___ system develops into the seminal vesicles.

1. Ovarian; Müllerian
2. Ovarian; Wolfferian
3. Müllerian; Wolfferian

Question 2

What effects of sex hormones produce long-term, structural effects?

1. Activating.
2. Stimulating.
3. Organising.

Question 3

The heightened release of estradiol causes a heightened release of ___ and a sudden increase in the release of ___ from the anterior pituitary gland.

1. LH; oxytocin hormone
2. FSH; LH
3. FSH; oxytocin hormone

Question 4

Some people have an anatomy that can be seen as male and female. What is usually the cause of this?

1. Androgen insensitivity.
2. CAH.
3. Intersexuality.

Question 5

How can having an older brother increase the chances for male homosexuality?

1. The older brother has changed the mother’s immune system in the prenatal environment.
2. The older brother is also gay.
3. The older brother takes part in the upbringing of the younger brother.

Answers

Question 1

C. Müllerian; Wolfferian

Question 2

C. Organising.

Question 3

B. FSH; LH.

Question 4

B. CAH.

Question 5

A. The older brother has changed the mother’s immune system in the prenatal environment.

What are the relationships between emotions, stress and health? - ExamTest 11

Questions

Question 1

Which of the following would greatly activate the parasympathetic nervous system?

1. A sudden loud noise.
2. Removal of a stimulus that excited the sympathetic nervous system.
3. A controllable or escapable electric shock.
4. A competitive task.

Question 2

One prediction based on the James Lange theory of emotions is that ___.

1. People have to feel an emotion before they can show physiological effects of it.
2. Removal of the stimulus for one emotion causes the onset of an opposite emotion.
3. The more intense the physiological arousal, the greater the emotion.
4. All emotional states produce the same physiological arousal.

Question 3

The James Lange theory of emotions and the Cannon Bard theory differ mainly with regard to which question?

1. Do emotions depend on autonomic changes or are they independent?
2. Do nonhumans experience emotions similar to those of humans?
3. Do all emotions give rise to physiological changes, or only certain emotions?
4. Which are more intense, the pleasant emotions or the unpleasant ones?

Question 4

The currently accepted view on the role of psychological factors in health is that ___.

1. Most causes of disease are best explained in purely physical, not psychological, terms.
2. Psychological reactions play a role in both disease and wellness.
3. Positive reactions help recovery, but negative reactions do not affect the risk of disease.
4. Psychological factors probably are the primary determining factor in almost all diseases.

Question 5

Benzodiazepines are steadily replacing the less desirable barbiturates. Which of the following characteristics of benzodiazepines is true?

1. Benzodiazepines strengthen the working of GABA agonists.
2. Benzodiazepines strengthen the working of GABA antagonists.
3. Benzodiazepines strengthen the working of serotonin agonists.
4. Benzodiazepines strengthen the working of serotonin antagonists.

Question 6

Benzodiazepines are most commonly used in the treatment of ___.

1. Psychotic thought disorder.
2. Anxiety.
3. Alcoholism.
4. Stress.

Question 7

Which hormone is regulated by the HPA-axis?

1. Adrenaline.
2. Non-adrenaline.
3. Cortisol.
4. Dopamine.

Question 8

Which system is mostly associated with happiness?

1. BUS.
2. BAS.
3. BIS.
4. BSI.

Answers

Question 1

B. Removal of a stimulus that excited the sympathetic nervous system.

Question 2

C. The more intense the physiological arousal, the greater the emotion.

Question 3

A. Do emotions depend on autonomic changes or are they independent?

Question 4

A. Most causes of disease are best explained in purely physical, not psychological, terms.

Question 5

B. Benzodiazepines strengthen the working of GABA antagonists.

Question 6

C. Alcoholism.

Question 7

B. Non-adrenaline.

Question 8

B. BAS.

What is the biology of learning and memory? - ExamTest 12

Questions

Question 1

Thiamine deficiency leads to Korsakoff's syndrome because thiamine is necessary for the ___.

1. Metabolism of glucose.
2. Synthesis of proteins.
3. Myelination of axons.
4. Protection against toxins.

Question 2

Both classical and operant conditioning can be described as ___.

1. An association between two events.
2. Instrumental conditioning.
3. Stimulus independent.
4. Consequence independent.

Question 3

Pavlov believed that classical conditioning reflected a strengthened connection between a brain area that represents ___ and a brain area that represents ___.

1. Reinforcement, punishment.
2. A response, a consequence.
3. US activity, UR activity.
4. CS activity, US activity.

Question 4

Which of the following observations (if true) would most seriously contradict Lashley's principles of mass action and equipotentiality?

1. A learned response is lost after damage to one connection but not others.
2. An individual with damage to the occipital cortex has the same learning impairment as one with damage to the temporal cortex.
3. Within a family of animals, the larger species learn faster and remember longer than the smaller species.
4. Brain damage impairs performance of complex tasks more than simple tasks.

Question 5

Which of the following statements about amnesia is true?

1. Someone who loses memory for past events will also be unable to form new memories.
2. Only damage to the cerebral cortex will produce amnesia.
3. Some people show severe impairments in some aspects of memory without any impairments in other aspects of memory.
4. Amnesia refers to a loss in previously stored memories, not to an impairment in forming new memories.

Question 6

Retrograde amnesia means ___; anterograde amnesia means ___.

1. Temporary loss of memory, permanent loss of memory.
2. Loss of short term memory, loss of long-term memory.
3. Inability to form new memories, loss of memory for old events.
4. Loss of memory for old events, inability to form new memories.

Question 7

Patients with Korsakoff's syndrome typically suffer from ___.

1. Both anterograde and retrograde amnesia.
2. Only anterograde amnesia.
3. Only retrograde amnesia.
4. Neither anterograde nor retrograde amnesia.

Answers

Question 1

A. Metabolism of glucose.

Question 2

A. An association between two events.

Question 3

D. CS activity, US activity.

Question 4

A. A learned response is lost after damage to one connection but not others.

Question 5

C. Some people show severe impairments in some aspects of memory without any impairments in other aspects of memory.

Question 6

D. Loss of memory for old events, inability to form new memories.

Question 7

A. Both anterograde and retrograde amnesia.

What is the biology of cognitive functions? - ExamTest 13

Questions

Question 1

Both monkeys and humans with damage to the prefrontal cortex are impaired in their performance of tasks requiring ___.

1. Learning of motor skills.
2. Discriminating between different visual stimuli.
3. Suppressing one's previous response and substituting a new one.

Question 2

What function isn’t asymmetrically lateralised?

1. Language.
2. Emotion.
3. Motoric.

Question 3

What term relates to impairment in the Broca area?

1. Non-fluent aphasia.
2. Fluent aphasia.
3. Anomia.

Question 4

When the corpus callosum is cut, a person won’t be able to ___.

1. Point to an object in the right visual field with his right hand.
2. Draw an object in the left visual field.
3. Name the object in the left visual field.

Question 5

What isn’t true about dyslexia?

1. Children with dyslexia show less arousal when they read something.
2. Dyslexia is common in all languages in the same amount.
3. Dyslexia is more common in boys than girls.

Answers

Question 1

C. Suppressing one's previous response and substituting a new one.

Question 2

C. Motoric.

Question 3

A. Non-fluent aphasia.

Question 4

C. Name the object in the left visual field.

Question 5

B. Dyslexia is common in all languages in the same amount.

How can mental disorders be explained and defined biologically? - ExamTest 14

Questions

Question 1

Lithium is most commonly prescribed for ___.

1. Seasonal affective disorder.
2. Endogenous depression.
3. Reactive depression.
4. Manic-depressive disorder.

Question 2

Which of the following is not a common characteristic of schizophrenia?

1. Deterioration of everyday functioning.
2. Hallucinations or delusions.
3. Impaired understanding of abstract concepts.
4. Alternation between one personality and another.

Question 3

Which of the following is an example of a ‘negative symptom’ of schizophrenia?

1. Hallucinations.
2. Lack of emotional expression.
3. Delusions.
4. Thought disorder.

Question 4

A schizophrenic patient whose main symptoms are lack of emotional expression, lack of social interaction, and lack of speech is said to suffer from ___.

1. Positive symptoms.
2. Negative symptoms.
3. Thought disorder.
4. Delusions.

Question 5

Schizophrenia is generally diagnosed for the first time when a person is between the ages ___.

1. 5 and 10.
2. 10 and 15.
3. 15 and 30.
4. 40 and 50.

Question 6

Which of these indications of brain damage is common in people with schizophrenia?

1. Smaller than normal cerebral ventricles.
2. Loss of neurons in the thalamus, cerebral cortex, and hippocampus.
3. Loss of axons between the substantia nigra and the basal ganglia.
4. Heavier forebrains.

Question 7

A restless, impulsive person whose speech rambles from one idea to another may fit which of these categories?

1. Autism.
2. Depression.
3. Mania.
4. Narcolepsy.

Question 8

People with unipolar disorder ___.

1. Are always depressed.
2. Vary between depression and mania.
3. Vary between depression and normal mood.
4. Only show chemical imbalances in one half of their brain.

Question 9

Manic-depressive disorder is synonymous with ___.

1. Unipolar disorder.
2. Bipolar disorder.
3. Hypomania.
4. Autism.

Question 10

What is the best treatment for seasonal affective disorder?

1. Bright light.
2. Electroconvulsive shock therapy.
3. Adrenal hormones.
4. Dietary changes.

Question 11

What do scientists recommend pregnant women taking, in order to reduce the chance of getting a child with autism?

1. Vitamin D (sunlight).
2. Fish tablets (omega-3).
3. Dopamine.
4. Folium acid.

Answers

Question 1

D. Manic-depressive disorder.

Question 2

D. Alternation between one personality and another.

Question 3

B. Lack of emotional expression.

Question 4

B. Negative symptoms.

Question 5

C. 15 and 30.

Question 6

B. Loss of neurons in the thalamus, cerebral cortex, and hippocampus.

Question 7

C. Mania.

Question 8

C. Vary between depression and normal mood.

Question 9

B. Bipolar disorder.

Question 10

A. Bright light.

Question 11

D. Folium acid.