What does abnormality mean? - ExamTests 1

MC-questions

Question 1

As what kind of theory of abnormality could the old Chinese theory of the breath of life be labeled?

1. A biological theory

2. A supernatural theory

3. A psycho-social theory

Question 2

Which term is described here? Behavior that is followed by positive consequences will be repeated more often than behavior that is followed by negative consequences.

1. Classical conditioning

2. Operant conditioning

3. Learning through observation

4. Learning through punishment and rewarding

Question 3

What does 'cultural relativism' mean?

1. That there are no universal standards or rules to classify behavior as abnormal, behavior can only be abnormal according to prevailing standards.

2. That in different cultures very different disorders can occur, which you have to take into account in the assessment.

Open questions

Question 1

Name the four D's of abnormality and explain what they mean.

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

A. A biological theory. This theory assumes that human emotions were controlled by internal organs. When the life air flowed through one of these organs, a certain emotion belonging to that organ was experienced.

Question 2

B. Operant conditioning

Question 3

A. That there are no universal standards or rules to classify behavior as abnormal, behavior can only be abnormal according to prevailing standards.

Answer indication open questions

Question 1

Dysfunction, Distress, Deviance and Dangerousness.

• Behavior and feelings are dysfunctional when they interfere with someone's functioning in daily life. The more dysfunctional the behavior, the greater the chance that this is labeled as abnormal.
• Behavior and feelings that cause distress to the individual and the persons around him are also often regarded as abnormal.
• Strongly deviant behaviors, such as chronic lying and stealing, lead to assessments of abnormality.
• Behaviors that are dangerous to the individual, such as self-harm, or to others, such as serious aggression, are also seen as abnormal.

Which theories and treatments of abnormality exist? - ExamTests 2

MC-questions

Question 1

Which approach to explaining psychological complaints is based on a person's convictions, life experience and relationships?

1. The biological approach

2. The psychological approach

3. The socio-cultural approach

Question 2

Which of the sub-cortical structures deals with memory?

1. Thalamus

2. Hypothalamus

3. Hippocampus

4. Amygdala

Question 3

Which statement is correct?

1. Behaviors are taught the fastest with the help of a continuous reinforcement schedule.

2. Behaviors learned with a partial reinforcement schedule are the fastest to learn again.

1. Only claim I is correct

2. Only claim II is correct

3. Both statements are correct

4. Both statements are incorrect

Question 4

Which form of prevention is attempted to inhibit a disorder that is in a very early phase?

1. Primary prevention

2. Secondary prevention

3. Tertiary prevention

Question 5

In general, lower levels of serotonin are associated with:

1. Dominant and rigid behavior

2. Fearful and aggressive behavior

Question 6

Which neurotransmitter plays a role in aggressive impulses?

1. Serotonin

2. Dopamine

Question 7

In which type of therapy are negative thinking styles related to psychological disorders such as depression and anxiety identified and altered?

1. Cognitive therapy

2. Psychodynamic therapy

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

B. The psychological approach. For example, the biological approach assumes a genetic predisposition. The socio-cultural approach is based on cultural values ​​or social environment.

Question 2

C. Hippocampus. The thalamus sends incoming information from the senses to the cerebrum. The hypothalamus regulates eating, drinking and sexual behavior. The Amygdala is critical for emotions such as fear.

Question 3

A. Only claim I is correct. Behaviors learned with a partial reinforcement schedule are very difficult to learn because the person is used to not being rewarded continuously. So less reward is needed to maintain the behavior.

Question 4

B. Secondary prevention. Primary prevention attempts to change the circumstances so that the disorder does not arise at all. In the case of tertiary prevention, an attempt is made to limit the impact of an already existing disorder as much as possible.

Question 5

B. Fearful and aggressive behavior

Question 6

A. Serotonin

Question 7

A. Cognitive therapy

How can you assess and diagnose abnormality? - ExamTests 3

MC-questions

Question 1

What kind of validity is described here?

Describes the extent to which a test measures the important aspects of the phenomenon to be investigated and omits the unimportant aspects.

1. Face validity.

2. Content validity.

3. Competitor validity.

4. Construct validity.

Question 2

What form of reliability is described here?

Using different forms of the test, when it needs to be taken again.

1. Test-retest reliability.

2. Internal reliability.

3. Interrater reliability.

4. Alternate form reliability.

Question 3

In which brain imaging technique is a radioactive substance injected to the brain?

1. Positron-emission tomography (PET).

2. Computerized tomography (CT).

3. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

4. Electroencephalogram (EEG).

Question 4

Which disorders are not on axis 1 in the DSM-V?

1. Depression and anxiety.

2. Personality disorders and mental retardation.

3. Autism spectrum disorders.

4. Living environment.

Question 5

In 1980 the DSM-III came out. Since then, psychiatric diagnostics have progressed, especially in the areas of:

1. Reliability.

2. Validity.

Question 6

What does a clinical assessment / assessment involve?

1. An assessment is giving a label to a number of symptoms that often occur together.

2. An assessment is the process of collecting symptoms and looking at what the causes may be.

Question 7

What conditions must assessment techniques fulfill?

1. Assessment techniques must be efficient, reliable and valid.

2. Assessment techniques must be reliable, valid and standardized.

Question 8

Which concept belongs to the following description: Using direct observations to determine someone's thoughts, feelings and behavior in certain situations.

1. Personality Inventory.

2. Behavior Assessment.

Question 9

A PET scan provides an image of the ....

1. Activity of the brain.

2. Structure of the brain.

Question 10

What do psychophysiological tests involve?

1. With measurable changes in the nervous system that show emotional and psychological changes.

2. With the determination of certain neurological abnormalities, such as the presence of brain tumors.

Question 11

Classification is ...

1. Making a certain diagnosis for an individual

2. Organizing problems of individuals in certain groups

Question 12

Klaas is diagnosed with a Major Depressive Disorder and a Post Traumatic Disorder. The presence of two or more disorders in Klaas at the same time is called … .

1. Comorbidity.

2. Multiple syndrome.

Question 13

What is an advantage of self-observation?

1. That behavior can be tracked and registered at more times.

2. The influence of the presence of another person will lapse. This is called reactivity.

Question 14

Why are projective tests not often used by clinicians other than psychodynamic therapists?

1. It takes a lot of time to take these tests.

2. The reliability and validity of these tests are not high

Question 15

What is an example of a projective technique?

1. The thematic apperception test

2. Observing someone in a conflict

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

B. Content validity.

Question 2

D. Alternate form reliability.

Question 3

A. Positron-emission tomography (PET). It is also still done at Single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT), this is a less expensive technique, but also less accurate.

Question 4

D. Living environment.

Question 5

A. Reliability.

Question 6

B. An assessment is the process of collecting symptoms and looking at what the causes may be.

Question 7

B. Assessment techniques must be reliable, valid and standardized.

Question 8

B. Behavior Assessment.

Question 9

A. Activity of the brain.

Question 10

A. With measurable changes in the nervous system that show emotional and psychological changes..

Question 11

B. Organizing problems of individuals in certain groups.

Question 12

A. Comorbidity.

Question 13

B. The influence of the presence of another person will lapse. This is called reactivity.

Question 14

B. The reliability and validity of these tests are not high.

Question 15

A. The thematic apperception test.

What anxiety disorders do we distinguish? - ExamTests 5

MC-questions

Question 1

What is not one of the four symptoms required for a diagnosis of PTSD?

1. Reliving the traumatic experience

2. Depression

3. Emotional anesthesia

4. Hyper vigilance

Question 2

What is the difference between treatment of a panic disorder on the basis of medication, compared to treatment by cognitive behavioral therapy?

1. Treatment with medicines works better in the short term than cognitive behavioral therapy, but worse in the long term.

2. Drug treatment works worse in the short term than cognitive behavioral therapy, but better in the long term.

3. Drug treatment works as well as cognitive behavioral therapy in the short term, but worse in the long term.

4. Drug treatment works just as well in the short term as cognitive behavioral therapy, but better in the long term

Question 3

With which other disorder is a social phobia rare?

1. Behavioral disorder

2. Mood disorder

3. Anxiety disorder

4. Avoiding personality disorder

Question 4

Benzodiazepines ...

1. Are effective in treating generalized anxiety disorder, but are not effective in treating panic attacks

2. Are effective in treating panic attacks as long as the use is continued

Question 5

The frequency of panic attacks is reduced by antidepressants:

1. In more than half of the patients with a panic disorder

2. In patients who have a panic disorder, and also suffer from depression

Question 6

The four symptom criteria of the DSM-V diagnosis post-traumatic stress disorder are:

1. Repetitions; Avoidance; Negative changes in thoughts and state of mind; Increased arousal

2. Impulsivity; Suicidal thoughts; Addiction behavior; Fear

Question 7

In patients with post-traumatic stress disorder and in depressed patients who have been maltreated in childhood, structural brain abnormalities can be seen. One of those characteristics is that the hippocampus ...

1. On average is larger, which could have to do with the fact that the hippocampus has to 'work overtime' to keep the amygdala response in check.

2. On average is smaller, which could be related to the toxic effects of chronically elevated cortisol levels.

Question 8

A panic attack is relatively rare according to the DSM-V. Is this correct or not?

1. True, about 1% of the population ever live in their lives.

2. This is not true, about 28% of the population goes through at least one panic attack.

Question 9

Adriaan regularly has blaspheming thoughts and then says exactly fifteen times a vow to make this 'good'. He ends up working on it for hours a day. These vows are an example of:

1. Illusion

2. Compulsion

Question 10

Antidepressants, especially antidepressants that affect the neurotransmitter serotonin:

1. Aggravate Obsessive Compulsive Disorder

2. Have a modest positive effect on obsessive-compulsive disorder

Question 11

An anxiety disorder that occurs proportionally more often in women than in men is:

1. OCD

2. Panic Disorder

Question 12

In people with depression there is a chronic hyperactivity in the HPA axis. This leads to damage to the ...

1. Amygdala

2. Hippocampus

Question 13

What is agoraphobia?

1. Agoraphobia is a specific phobia, namely the fear of spiders

2. Agoraphobia is the fear and avoidance of situations or public places that are seen as unsafe

Question 14

In people with post-traumatic stress disorder ...

1. The amygdala reacts more violently to emotional stimuli and the medial prefrontal cortex is less active.

2. The amygdala reacts more violently to emotional stimuli and the medial prefrontal cortex is more active.

Question 15

In which part of the nervous system does the CRF hormone belong?

1. In the parasympathetic nervous system

2. In the sympathetic nervous system

Question 16

Comorbidity (appearance of two or more disorders in an individual) also occurs in anxiety disorders. With which other disorder are anxiety disorders the most comorbid?

1. Depression

2. Bipolar disorder

Question 17

In cognitive behavioral therapy for anxiety disorders, clients are often exposed in small steps to situations they are afraid of. How is this technique called?

1. Systematic desensitization

2. Gradual habituation

Question 18

With hoarding ...

1. People have an obsession with buying, also called 'passion for buying'.

2. People have trouble throwing away their belongings, regardless of value.

Question 19

The fight-flight response is a reaction from the ....

1. Adrenal cortical system

2. Both the adrenal cortical system and the autonomic nervous system

Question 20

Which area in the brain is most associated with anxiety?

1. The basal ganglia

2. The limbic system

Question 21

What are obsessions?

1. Obsessions are thoughts, images or ideas that are persistent and uncontrollable, and that often cause anxiety or stress.

2. Obsessions are repeated actions that a person must carry out.

Question 22

About what fear can be spoken in a generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

1. The fear often concerns a specific, large life change

2. The fear is often focused on many different, small daily events

Open questions

Question 1

Name five possible symptoms that occur during a panic attack.

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

B. Depression

Question 2

C. Drug treatment works in the short term as well as cognitive behavioral therapy, but worse in the long term. When you stop taking the medication, the symptoms often return. Cognitive behavioral therapy is much better in preventing a relapse.

Question 3

A. Behavioral disorder

Question 4

B. Are effective in treating panic attacks as long as the use is continued

Question 5

A. In more than half of patients with panic disorder

Question 6

A. Repetitions; Avoidance; Negative changes in thoughts and state of mind; Increased arousal

Question 7

B. On average, it is smaller, which could be related to the toxic effects of chronically elevated cortisol levels.

Question 8

B. This is not true, about 28% of the population has a panic attack at least once.

Question 9

B. Compulsion

Question 10

B. Have a modest positive effect on obsessive-compulsive disorder

Question 11

B. Panic Disorder

Question 12

B. Hippocampus

Question 13

B. Agoraphobia is the fear and avoidance of situations or public places that are seen as unsafe.

Question 14

A. The amygdala reacts more violently to emotional stimuli and the medial prefrontal cortex is less active.

Question 15

B. In the sympathetic nervous system

Question 16

A. Depression.

Question 17

A. Systematic desensitization

Question 18

B. People have trouble throwing away their belongings, regardless of value.

Question 19

B. Both the adrenal cortical system and the autonomic nervous system

Question 20

B. The limbic system

Question 21

A. Obsessions are thoughts, images or ideas that are persistent and uncontrollable, and that often cause anxiety or stress.

Question 22

B. The fear is often focused on many different, small daily events.

Answer indication Open questions

Question 1

Possible symptoms are:

• Palpitations

• Sweating

• Shaking and tremors

• Shortness of breath or a feeling of suffocation

• Pain or pressure on the chest

• Nausea or abdominal pain

• Dizziness, lightheaded

• Derealisation or depersonalization

• Fear of losing control or going crazy

• Fear of dying

• Cold chills or hot flushes

• A stinging or burning sensation on the skin

What types of somatic symptom disorders and dissociative disorders do we distinguish? - ExamTests 6

MC-questions

Question 1

What is the difference between somatic symptom disorders and psychosomatic disorders?

1. Both terms describe the same phenomenon.

2. People with somatic symptom disorders have a physical illness, which is exacerbated by their psychological state. People with psychosomatic disorders do not have diseases with a physical cause.

3. People with psychosomatic disorders have a physical illness, which is exacerbated by their psychological condition. People with somatic symptom disorder do not have a disease with a physical cause.

Question 2

Which of the following disorders is not a somatic symptom disorder?

1. Conversion disorder

2. Illness anxiety disorder

3. Factitious disorder

4. A dissociative identity disorder

Question 3

If someone loses the feeling for the reality of the external world, there is talk of ..

1. Dissociation

2. Derealisation

Question 4

Marieke has recently experienced a traumatic car accident. As a result, she can suddenly no longer move her right arm. What kind of disorder does Marieke suffer from?

1. Pain Disorder

2. Functional Neurological Disorder

Question 5

Someone deliberately acts as if he or she has a disease to receive medical attention. In the case of this person there is ...

1. A factitious disorder

2. malingering

Question 6

Which form (s) of amnesia is often caused by a psychological event?

1. Retrograde amnesia

2. Both anterograde and retrograde amnesia

Question 7

What disorder is there when someone feels that he or she is disconnected from his or her thoughts and body?

1. A dissociative fugue

2. A depersonalization disorder

Question 8

In which disorder is it possible for a 100 personalities or fragments of personalities to exist side by side in one body and mind?

1. Depersonalization Disorder

2. Dissociative Identity Disorder

Question 9

In which kind of amnesia is an individual unable to remember important personal information?

1. Organic, retrograde amnesia

2. Dissociative amnesia

Question 10

Consider the following statement: Antidepressants can have a positive effect on the treatment of a dissociative identity disorder. Is this statement true or not true?

1. This statement is true

2. This statement is not true

Question 11

What shows that people with a dissociative identity disorder use dissociation to relax reality?

1. From the fact that they are easy to hypnotize

2. From the fact that they can stay hypnotized for a long time once they are hypnotized

Question 12

What is derealisation?

1. A relapse in the process of behavioral change

2. The feeling that everything around you 'is not real'

Question 13

Dissociation is a rather rare phenomenon.

1. False, dissociation is a normal phenomenon and often occurs with fatigue or stress

2. True, only 2 - 3% of the population ever experiences it

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

C. People with psychosomatic disorders have a physical illness, which is exacerbated by their psychological state. People with somatic symptom disorders do not have diseases with a physical cause.

Question 2

D. A dissociative identity disorder. This disorder is part of the dissociative disorders.

Question 3

B. Derealisation

Question 4

B. Functional Neurological Disorder

Question 5

A. A factitious disorder

Question 6

A. Retrograde amnesia

Question 7

B. Depersonalization disorder

Question 8

B. Dissociative identity disorder

Question 9

B. Dissociative amnesia

Question 10

A. This statement is true

Question 11

A. From the fact that they are easy to hypnotize

Question 12

B. The feeling that everything around you 'is not real'

Question 13

A. Not true, dissociation is a normal phenomenon and often occurs in case of fatigue or stress.

What is the relationship between mood disorders and suicide? - ExamTests 7

MC-questions

Question 1

Which statement is true?

1. Depression is most prevalent among young adults.

2. As people get older, the chance of depression only gets smaller.

1. Only thesis I is true.

2. Only thesis II is true.

3. Both theses are true.

4. Both propositions are false.

Question 2

Which statement is true?

1. There is no evidence for a genetic background in bipolar disorder.

2. People with unipolar disorder are no more likely to develop bipolar disorder than people without unipolar disorder.

1. Only thesis I is true

2. Only thesis II is true

3. Both statements are true

4. Both statements are false

Question 3

What theory about depression is described here? Stress in a person's life leads to depression because there are less positive reinforcers due to the stress. The person thereby withdraws, resulting in even less positive reinforcers, after which a vicious circle arises.

1. The theory of learned helplessness

2. Cognitive theory of depression

3. The reformulated learned helplessness theory

4. The behavioral theory of depression

Question 4

A 60-year-old man has had a gloomy mood and energy loss for four months. He often woke up at four o'clock in the morning and could not sleep because of the worry. He also had concentration problems and a greatly reduced appetite. These symptoms arose shortly after his employer had dismissed him. He felt unable to look for a new job at the beginning. At the end of the fourth month, his complaints improved to some degree during a short holiday in France. Three weeks later he found work again, and another three weeks later he feels reasonably back to his old self again. The conclusion one can draw is:

1. This man had no psychiatric diagnosis

2. This man suffered from depression

Question 5

Genetic factors play ... the development and course of bipolar disorders.

1. A smaller role compared to unipolar mood disorders

2. A bigger role compared to unipolar mood disorders

Question 6

Compared to antidepressants, cognitive behavioral therapy has an advantage for depression:

1. After stopping the treatment, there is more relapse with antidepressants than in cognitive behavioral therapy.

2. Antidepressants work much more slowly than cognitive behavioral therapy.

Question 7

Research on the treatment of depression has shown that:

1. Approximately 75% of patients who have had depression will experience a depressive period later in life.

2. Approximately 40% of patients who have recovered from depression will regain depression within one to two years.

Question 8

Anhedonia is an important symptom of a ...

1. Anxiety Disorder

2. Depression

Question 9

In people with bipolar type II disorder, the symptoms of mania are relatively mild. What is this called?

1. Hypomania

2. Hypermanie

Question 10

In the case of a persistent depressive disorder, the symptoms last at least ... .. year(s).

1. One

2. Two

Question 11

Consider the following statement: people with bipolar type I disorder, face manic episodes as well as hypomanic episodes.

1. This statement is correct

2. This statement is incorrect

Question 12

Consider the following statement: suicide is more common in women. This has to do with the fact that women more often have depression than men.

1. This statement is correct

2. This statement is incorrect

Question 13

What is a cyclothymic disorder?

1. A cyclothymic disorder is a disorder that is milder but longer lasting than a bipolar disorder.

2. A cyclothymic disorder is a disorder that is milder but longer lasting than a major depressive disorder.

Question 14

Which form of therapy is designed specifically for the treatment of bipolar disorder?

1. Interpersonal therapy

2. Family Focused Therapy

Question 15

If a person experiences depression with a collection of different symptoms, the following diagnosis can be made:

1. Atypical depression

2. Depression with mixed characteristics

Open questions

Question 1

Name at least three symptoms of depression.

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

A. Only statement I is true. Depression is most common in young adults, after which the risk of depression decreases. But above the age of 85 there is again an increase in the chance of depression.

Question 2

B. Only statement II is true. There is evidence for a genetic background in bipolar disorder: in family members of the first degree the probability is two to three times that they also get the disorder.

Question 3

D. The behavioral theory of depression

Question 4

B. This man suffered from depression

Question 5

B. A greater role compared to unipolar mood disorders

Question 6

A. After stopping treatment there is more relapse in antidepressants than in cognitive behavioral therapy.

Question 7

A. About 75% of patients who have had depression, later in life has to deal with a depressive period.

Question 8

B. Depression

Question 9

A. Hypomania

Question 10

B. Two

Question 11

B. This statement is incorrect

Question 12

B. This statement is incorrect

Question 13

A. A cyclothymic disorder is a disorder that is milder but longer lasting than a bipolar disorder.

Question 14

B. Family Focused Therapy

Question 15

A. Atypical depression

Answer indication open questions

Question 1

Possible symptoms are:

• Little eating or overeating.

• Insomnia or sleeping too much.

• Little energy or fatigue.

• Low self-esteem.

• Bad concentration and difficulty making decisions.

• Feelings of hopelessness.

What do the schizophrenic spectrum and related psychotic disorders look like? - ExamTests 8

MC-questions

Question 1

Which of the following symptoms is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

1. Delusions

2. Hallucinations

3. Anhedonia

4. Unorganized speech and thoughts

Question 2

What percentage of people with schizophrenia cures partially or completely?

1. 0-10%

2. 10-20%

3. 20-30%

4. 30-40%

Question 3

What percentage of people with schizophrenia commit suicide?

1. 5-10%

2. 10-15%

3. 15-20%

4. 20-25%

Question 4

Men generally have a better disease course of schizophrenia than women. Is this statement correct or incorrect?

1. This statement is correct

2. This statement is incorrect

Question 5

People with schizophrenia often have ... .. ventricles and a ... .. prefrontal cortex

1. Smaller; smaller

2. Greater; smaller

Question 6

Someone has the idea that he is constantly being chased, and sees people who are not really there. This person suffers from:

1. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia

2. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia

Question 7

What is not an example of a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

1. Tangled speech

2. Smoothed affect

Question 8

What does a brief psychotic disorder mean?

1. A person gets this diagnosis if the symptoms of schizophrenia only last one day to a month.

2. Someone gets this diagnosis if the symptoms of schizophrenia last at least one week, but no longer than a month.

Question 9

If a person has a mix of symptoms of schizophrenia and a mood disorder, the diagnosis given will be .............

1. Schizoaffective disorder

2. Schizophreniform disorder

Question 10

In which disorder is there a prodromal, active and residual phase?

1. Schizophrenia

2. Dissociative Identity Disorder

Question 11

In schizophrenia, a dopamine surplus in the limbic system probably causes

1. Positive symptoms

2. Both positive and negative symptoms

Question 12

What is not a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

1. The approach behavior that people with schizophrenia often exhibit

2. Unorganized speech

Question 13

What are hallucinations?

1. Ideas that the patient thinks are true, while those ideas are very unlikely or even impossible.

2. Someone has hallucinations when he perceives things that are not actually there.

Question 14

What is the greatest benefit of atypical antipsychotics to the older forms of antipsychotics?

1. Atypical psychotics have almost no side effects.

2. Atypical psychotics also have an effect on the negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

Question 15

'delusion of greatness' is:

1. A symptom

2. A syndrome

Question 16

The prevalence of schizophrenia is somewhat higher among city dwellers than among people living in rural areas. This is probably because ....

1. People who live in the city experience more stress.

2. People who live in the city are more susceptible to infectious diseases, which can infect pregnant women.

Question 17

A psychologist assesses 18-year-old Tom and doubts whether he has had a psychosis. Some answers seem to indicate this, but Tom indicates that he does not want to talk about it. What can the psychologist do best to get more certainty about whether there has been a psychosis (given that Tom gives permission for this)?

1. Making an MRI scan

2. Interviewing family members or friends

Question 18

People who suffer from psychoses and also have characteristics of schizophrenia and of a mood disorder classify in the category:

1. Schizoaffective disorder

2. Cyclothyme disorder

Question 19

Which areas in the cortex often function less in patients with schizophrenia?

1. The frontal and temporal areas of the cortex

2. The occipital and parietal areas of the cortex

Question 20

As a child of a single parent with schizophrenia, whose symptoms with medication are well controlled, you run on average as much risk of developing schizophrenia as other children from single parent families.

1. Incorrect, the risk is in the first case about 10x higher than in the second case

2. Precisely, the risk is about 1% in both cases

Open questions

Question 1

What is the difference between the diagnoses for schizoaffective disorder and schizophrenia?

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

C. Anhedonia, this is the loss of interest in everything of life. Negative symptoms mean that someone no longer has normal behaviors or skills, instead of performing extra, abnormal behaviors.

Question 2

C. 20-30% cure partially or completely.

Question 3

B. 10-15% commits suicide.

Question 4

B. This statement is incorrect

Question 5

B. Larger; smaller

Question 6

B. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia

Question 7

A. Confused speech

Question 8

A. A person gets this diagnosis if the symptoms of schizophrenia only last one day to a month.

Question 9

A. Schizoaffective disorder

Question 10

A. Schizophrenia

Question 11

A. Positive symptoms

Question 12

A. The approach behavior that people with schizophrenia often exhibit.

Question 13

B. Someone has hallucinations when he perceives things that are not there.

Question 14

B. Atypical psychotics also have an effect on the negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

Question 15

A. A symptom

Question 16

B. People who live in the city are more susceptible to infectious diseases, which can infect pregnant women.

Question 17

B. Interviewing family members or friends

Question 18

A. Schizoaffective disorder

Question 19

A. The frontal and temporal areas of the cortex

Question 20

A. Incorrect, in the first case the risk is about 10x higher than in the second case.

Answer indication open questions

Question 1

The diagnosis of mood disorder with psychotic characteristics is made when the positive symptoms only occur during a manic or depressive period. If the symptoms occur outside those periods, the diagnosis schizophrenia is made.

What personality disorders do we distinguish? - ExamTests 9

MC-questions

Question 1

In which cluster personality disorders do the following symptoms occur? People with one of these disorders are manipulative, volatile, unconcerned in social relationships and prone to impulsive behavior.

1. Cluster A: paranoid and schizotypic personality disorder.

2. Cluster B: antisocial, borderline, histrionic and narcissistic personality disorder.

3. Cluster C: dependent, avoidance and obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.

Question 2

What is not a characteristic of the schizoid personality disorder?

1. Paranoia.

2. Ideas of reference.

3. Aggression.

4. Magical thinking.

Question 3

Which statement is true?

1. There probably are more personality disorders than there are in the DSM.

2. The symptoms of personality disorders are stable traits.

1. Only proposition I is true.

2. Only theorem II is true.

3. Both propositions are where.

4. Both propositions are false.

Question 4

A woman knows time and time again to convince people with fantastic stories about how sincere and straightforward she is. When it comes down to it, however, she lets everyone fall like a brick and goes for her own interest. When confronted with the consequences of her actions, she does not admit. She does not feel sorry - they should not have been so silly, own fault!

What personality disorder does this woman have characteristics of?

1. Antisocial personality disorder.

2. Narcissistic personality disorder.

Question 5

Which personality disorder does not fall under cluster B?

1. The paranoid personality disorder.

2. The antisocial personality disorder.

Question 6

Anna has no need to enter into social relationships with other people. Nor does she express any kind of emotions when she talks to someone else. What kind of personality disorder does Anna have?

1. A schizotypical personality disorder.

2. A schizoid personality disorder.

Question 7

Consider the following statement: '75% of people with borderline attempt suicide'.

1. This statement is incorrect.

2. This statement is correct.

Question 8

About which disorder is the following: 'It seems as if Mark is always acting. He feels uncomfortable when he is not in the center of attention, he often tries to seduce others, and he uses his appearance for attention. '

1. A histrionic personality disorder.

2. A narcissistic personality disorder.

Question 9

In which cluster does the schizotypic personality disorder belong?

1. Cluster C.

2. Cluster A.

Question 10

What is the difference between obsessive-compulsive disorder and obsessive-compulsive personality disorder?

1. With an obsessive-compulsive disorder it is more about a general way of dealing with the world.

2. In people with obsessive-compulsive disorder, it is more about specific thoughts, images, ideas or behavior.

Question 11

Which disorder is characterized by distrust and suspicion towards others, whereby their motives are interpreted as malicious?

1. Paranoid personality disorder.

2. Histrionic personality disorder.

Question 12

Ruth is always afraid of dealing with other people because she is afraid that others will judge her. She is sure that other people find her stupid and ugly. She lives alone and does not want to date, because she is sure that men find her ugly and drowsy, and would reject her. What kind of personality disorder does Ruth have?

1. An avoidant personality disorder.

2. A dependent personality disorder.

Question 13

The DSM-V uses a hybrid model. What's the meaning of this?

1. That the DSM-V combines a categorical with a dimensional approach.

2. That the DSM-V has switched to a dimensional approach to DSM-IV.

Question 14

What disorder is involved in the following: 'Think that he / she deserves special treatment, exploit others, great sense of self-importance, often envy others and think that others are jealous of him and ask for excessive admiration

1. a theatrical personality.

2. a narcissistic personality.

Open questions

Question 1

What is the difference between avoidant personality disorder and social phobia?

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

B. cluster a cluster of people have characteristics of schizophrenia, in cluster C people have low self-esteem and difficulty with social relationships.

Question 2

C. Aggression is not a characteristic of schizoid personality disorder.

Question 3

D. Both propositions are false. Because there is a lot of overlap between the personality disorders, there are probably fewer disorders than there are in the DSM. The symptoms of personality disorders are indicated in DSM as if they were stable traits, but in reality the symptoms vary over time.

Question 4

A. Antisocial personality disorder.

Question 5

A. The paranoid personality disorder.

Question 6

B. A schizoid personality disorder.

Question 7

B. This statement is correct.

Question 8

A. A histrionic personality disorder.

Question 9

B. Cluster A.

Question 10

B. In people with obsessive behavior Compulsive disorder is more about specific thoughts, images, ideas or behavior.

Question 11

A. Paranoid personality disorder.

Question 12

A. An avoidant personality disorder.

Question 13

A. That the DSM-V combines a categorical with a dimensional approach.

Question 14

B. A narcissistic personality.

Answer indication open questions

Question 1

The difference between avoidance disorder and social phobia is that people with social phobia are usually afraid of specific situations, while people with an avoidant personality disorder are afraid of people in general.

What eating disorders do we distinguish? - ExamTests 12

MC-questions

Question 1

What is the difference between the binge / purge type of anorexia and bulimia?

1. People with the binge / purge type of anorexia also meet the other criteria for anorexia, while people with bulimia do not meet these criteria.

2. People with bulimia commit suicide 7.5 times as often.

3. People with the binge / purge type of anorexia throw up less often than people with bulimia.

4. People with the binge / purge type of anorexia do not have a healthy weight, while people with bulimia have a healthy weight or are overweight.

Question 2

Which statement is true?

1. The eating disorder obesity is not included in the DSM-V.

2. There is obesity with a BMI of 35 or higher.

1. Only statement I is true.

2. Only statement II is true.

3. Both statements are true.

4. Both statements are false.

Question 3

Which form of therapy works best for bulimia nervosa?

1. Behavioral therapy.

2. Cognitive behavioral therapy.

3. Interpersonal therapy.

4. Supportive-expressive therapy.

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

D. People with the binge / purge type of anorexia do not have a healthy weight, while people with bulimia have a healthy weight or overweight.

Question 2

A. Only statement I is correct. The eating disorder obesity is not included in the DSM-V, but it is a major risk for a person's health. There is obesity with a BMI of 30 or higher.

Question 3

B. Cognitive behavioral therapy works best with bulimia nervosa, because it addresses both the thoughts and the behavior.

What does health psychology entail? - ExamTests 15

MC-questions

Question 1

Which statement is correct?

1. Psychological disorders often occur along with medical problems because disorder and illness have a shared medical cause.

2. Psychological disorders often occur together with medical problems, because psychological problems contribute to the development of medical problems.

1. Only statement I is correct.

2. Only statement II is correct.

3. Both statements are correct.

4. Both statements are incorrect.

Question 2

What is true?

1. Men more often have a type A personality than women.

2. People who already have high blood pressure show a lesser increase in blood pressure when they experience a stressor than people who do not have high blood pressure.

3. Both depression and CHD are linked to a problem with the dopamine system.

4. All of the above is true.

Question 3

At what stage of sleep are the slowest waves visible on the EEG?

1. REM sleep.

2. Phase 1.

3. Phase 2.

4. Phase 3 and 4.

Question 4

Someone who strives for honor and who is impatient, competitive and hostile has a ...

1. Histrionic personality disorder.

2. Type A personality.

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

C. Both statements are correct. In addition, medical problems can also contribute to the development of psychological problems.

Question 2

A. Men more often have a type A personality than women. People who already have high blood pressure also have a greater increase in blood pressure when they experience a stressor. Depression and CHD are linked to a problem with the serotonin system, not the dopamine system.

Question 3

D. Phase 3 and 4 are characterized by Delta waves, of only 1 or 2 Hertz.

Question 4

B. Type A personality

How can personality traits be described and classified? - ExamTests 3 (2)

MC-questions

Question 1

What are the two most used personality dimensions in the history of personality psychology?

1. Conscientiousness and Neuroticism.

2. Neuroticism and Extraversion.

3. Agreeableness and Conscientiousness.

4. Extraversion and Agreeableness.

Question 2

Which of the following alternatives exemplifies the view that properties are descriptive summaries?

1. The sociosexual orientation scale (…).

2. Theoretical scale construction (1-2-3-4-5).

3. Eysenck's theory (3 main features; extroversion, neuroticism, psychotic).

4. The “act-frequency” method (Act nomination, proto. Judg., Rec or act perf).

Question 3

A researcher who defines properties before examining them follows ...

1. The statistical approach.

2. The theoretical approach.

3. The lexical approach.

4. All the above answers are correct.

Question 4

Features in a circumplex that are each other's opposites ...

1. Do not correlate.

2. Correlate positively.

3. Correlate negatively.

4. None of the above answers are correct.

Question 5

The idea that all major differences have been precipitated in the natural language is known as ...

1. The individual differences hypothesis.

2. The lexical hypothesis.

3. Factor analysis.

4. Property taxonomy.

Question 6

In Wiggins' circumplex, dominance and warmth-friendliness (agreeableness) convey the relationship of ...

1. 'Adjacency' to.

2. Bipolarity.

3. Orthogonality.

4. Factor loads.

Question 7

Someone who is anti-social and shows lack of empathy probably scores high on the trait ...

1. Extraversion.

2. Neuroticism.

3. Psychoticism.

4. All the above answers are correct.

Open questions

Question 1

Which two approaches are there to conceptualize traits?

Question 2

What three approaches exist to distinguish the most important features?

Question 3

Describe Eysenck's model.

Question 4

Describe Cattell's taxonomy.

Question 5

What are circumplex models of personality?

Question 6

Which five factors of personality are distinguished in the Big Five?

Question 7

Which sixth factor is distinguished in the HEXACO model?

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

B. Neuroticism and Extraversion.

Question 2

D. The “act-frequency” method (Act nomination, proto. Judg., Rec or act perf).

Question 3

B. The theoretical approach.

Question 4

C. Correlate negatively.

Question 5

B. The lexical hypothesis.

Question 6

C. Orthogonality.

Question 7

C. Psychoticism.

Answer indication open questions

Question 1

The first approach states that traits are inner traits that cause behavior. So pulling causes external behavior. The second approach states that traits are descriptive summaries of external behavior. This approach does not assume that pulling causes behavior.

Question 2

The lexical approach sees all important features as caught in the language. This approach uses synonym frequency and cross-cultural universality as criteria to distinguish important features. The statistical approach uses statistical procedures such as factor analysis to distinguish clusters from related traits. The theoretical approach uses existing personality theories to determine which traits are important.

Question 3

Eysenck developed a hierarchical model in which the features of extraversion, neuroticism and psychoticism are distinguished. These general traits include more specific traits such as activity level, mood and egocentricity. The taxonomy is based on factor analysis but has biological roots, such as a hereditary and physiological basis of the traits.

Question 4

Cattell's taxonomy consists of 16 personality traits, based on factor analysis. This taxonomy arose from the use of multiple types of data sources.

Question 5

Circumplex taxonomies focus on the domain of interpersonal traits. They are circular arrangements of traits around two dimensions - status (dominance) and love (kindness).

Question 6

Extraversion, kindness, conscientiousness, emotional stability and open-mindedness.

Question 7

In addition to the five factors of the Big Five, the HEXACO model distinguishes the factor Honesty-Humility. This factor includes sincerity, honesty, avoidance of greed and modesty.

What can we say about personality and genetics? - ExamTests 6 (2)

MC-questions

Question 1

The heredity coefficient is expressed as the proportion ...

1. Genotypic variance of the total variance.

2. Genotypic variance of the phenotypic variance.

3. Phenotypic variance of the total variance.

4. Phenotypic variance of the genotypic variance.

Question 2

Most studies attempting to relate specific genes to personality ...

1. Find that specific genes only explain a very small part of the variance.

2. Find that specific genes explain a moderate amount of the variance.

3. Find that specific genes explain much of the variance.

4. Failing to find such a relationship.

Question 3

A trait is likely to be hereditary when ...

1. Dizygotic twins are more similar to that trait than monozygotic twins.

2. Monozygous twins are more similar to that trait than dizygotic twins.

3. Ordinary twins are more alike on that trait than dizygotic twins.

4. Dizygotic twins are more similar to that trait than regular twins.

Question 4

The percentage of their genes that uncles and aunts have in common with cousins ​​is approximately ...

1. 0%

2. 12.5%

3. 25%

4. 50%

Question 5

Which approach aims to identify specific genes related to personality traits?

1. Adoption Studies.

2. Molecular studies.

3. Twin studies.

4. All the above answers are correct.

Question 6

What percentage of his or her children does a parent have in common with each of his or her children?

1. 25%

2. 50%

3. 75%

4. 100%

Question 7

Most studies attempting to relate specific genes to personality ...

1. Fail to find such a relationship.

2. Find that specific genes explain only a very small part of the variation.

3. Find that specific genes explain a moderate amount of the variation.

4. Find that specific genes explain much of the variation.

Question 8

If the correlation between characteristics of adoptive parents and adopted children is high ...

1. We can assume that there is genetic influence.

2. We can assume that there is environmental influence.

3. We can assume that there is a shared environment.

4. There is not enough information to say anything about this.

Open questions

Question 1

Which four traditional methods are used in gene research?

Question 2

Which traits have heredity been demonstrated?

Question 3

To what extent are personality traits hereditary and to what extent are they determined by the environment?

Question 4

What does the concept of heredity mean?

Question 5

What does 'the influence of environment' mean?

Question 6

Which three types of gene-environment correlations are distinguished?

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

A. Genotypic variance of the total variance.

Question 2

B. Find that specific genes explain a moderate amount of the variance.

Question 3

B. Monozygous twins are more similar to that trait than dizygotic twins

Question 4

C. 25%

Question 5

B. Molecular studies.

Question 6

B. 50%

Question 7

C. Find that specific genes explain a moderate amount of the variation.

Question 8

B. We can assume that there is environmental influence.

Answer indication open questions

Question 1

Selective breeding, family studies, twin studies and adoption studies.

Question 2

Extraversion and neuroticism, as well as other dimensions of the Big Five, have been shown to be mediocre hereditary.

Question 3

Personality traits are 30-50 percent hereditary and 50-70 percent are determined by the environment.

Question 4

The degree of perceived individual differences caused by genetic differences in a given population or sample.

Question 5

The extent to which observed individual differences are caused by environmental differences.

Question 6

Passive, reactive and active.

Which biological / physiological theories exist with regard to personality? - ExamTests 7 (2)

MC-questions

Question 1

Which of the following alternatives is, according to Eysenck, related to low physiological arousal?

1. Introversion (happens more in the brain).

2. Extraversion (less happening in the brain).

3. The Behavioral Inhibition System.

4. The Behavioral Activation System.

Question 2

A person who drinks coffee in the morning rather than in the evening is someone ...

1. With greater activity in the left hemisphere.

2. With greater activity in the right hemisphere.

3. That scores high on 'morningness'.

4. That scores high on 'eveningness'.

Question 3

Biological differences that are likely to trigger personality differences ...

1. Are called biological correlates.

2. Are called biological substrates.

3. Obey Yerkes-Dodson's law.

4. Are considered cardiovascular reactivity.

Question 4

Which of the following properties is most related to biological rhythms?

1. Extraversion.

2. Sensation-seeking.

3. Morningness eveningness.

4. Impulsivity.

Question 5

Which of the following alternatives is not a component of 'sensation seeking'?

1. Search for excitement and adventure.

2. Disinhibition.

3. Sociability.

4. Boredom susceptibility.

Open questions

Question 1

What are the most used methods in personality research based on a biological approach?

Question 2

Which two ways of thinking about physiological variables are important in personality research and theory?

Question 3

Which six theories about the biological basis of personality are described in the chapter?

Question 4

How are physiological variables considered within these theories?

Question 5

What does the BAS system and the BIS system stand for?

Question 6

Which neurotransmitters play a role in the three-dimensional personality model and what role do they have in this?

Question 7

What is biologically underlying the affective style of an individual?

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

B. Extraversion (less happening in the brain).

Question 2

D. That scores high on 'eveningness'.

Question 3

B. Are called biological substrates.

Question 4

C. Morningness eveningness.

Question 5

C. Sociability.

Answer indication open questions

Question 1

Electrodormal activity, cardiovascular reactivity and brain activity. A new research area is fMRI (functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging).

Question 2

The first is to consider physiological measurements as variables associated with personality traits. A second way is to consider physiological events as contributing to providing a physiological substrate for personality traits.

Question 3

Extraversion, sensitivity to reward and punishment (based on the BIS and BAS system), sensation seeking, three-dimensional personality theory, morningness-eveningness, affective style.

Question 4

Physiological variables are considered to be more than constructs underlying character traits. They are considered as substrates of the biological roots of behavioral patterns associated with a trait.

Question 5

The BAS system is the Behavioral Activation System that responds to rewards. The BIS system is the Behavioral Inhibition System that responds to punishment and threats.

Question 6

Dopamine (novelty seeking), serotonin (harm avoidance) and norepinephrine (reward dependence).

Question 7

Asymmetry in the frontal brain activity. The left represents a tendency towards the positive and the right the negative.

What is the psychoanalytic approach to personality? - ExamTests 9 (2)

MC-questions

Question 1

Which of the following alternatives indicates that you are stuck at a certain stage of development?

1. Symbolism.

2. Fixation.

3. Displacement.

4. Identification.

Question 2

Which of the following statements would a modern psychoanalyst most likely agree with?

1. Most behavior is the result of unconscious conflicts.

2. Sexuality is more important to children than relationships.

3. The unconscious plays an important role in human functioning.

4. Childhood is not important for development.

Question 3

What do excuses or acceptable explanations for unacceptable behavior exemplify?

1. Rationalization.

2. Reaction formation.

3. Displacement.

4. Projection.

Question 4

Which of the following alternatives is primarily an answer to hostile natural forces?

1. 'Survival' selection.

2. Intersex selection (MV).

3. Intrasexual selection (MM).

4. Social anxiety.

Question 5

Freud's ideas about instincts are probably most influenced by ...

1. Galileo.

2. Jung.

3. Darwin (libido, thanatos).

4. The invention of the automobile.

Question 6

Which of the following alternatives indicates the attempt by a psychoanalytic therapist to describe a patient's unconscious conflicts?

1. Interpretation.

2. 'Transference'.

3. Projection.

4. Insight.

Question 7

Freud thought that when his female patients reported that they had been sexually seduced as a child, those patients probably ...

1. Speak the truth.

2. Suppressed the truth.

3. Committed to sublimation (making sexual or aggressive instincts desirable).

4. Unconscious desires fulfilled by fantasies.

Question 8

What happens to the amount of energy in a person, according to Freud?

1. Changes when the person changes.

2. Increases with age.

3. Decreases with age.

4. Always remains constant.

Question 9

In psychoanalysis, it is true that 'transference':

1. Is counterproductive.

2. Tells something about someone's unconscious.

3. Is unethical.

4. Reduces psychic energy.

Question 10

Which part of the psyche, according to Freud, relies most on the identification of the child with the parents?

1. Id.

2. Ego.

3. Superego.

4. All the above answers are correct.

Question 11

Which of the following terms refers to the instinct for pleasure, especially sexual pleasure?

1. Unconscious.

2. Libido.

3. Thanatos.

4. Superego.

Question 12

Defense mechanisms ...

1. Operate unconsciously.

2. Require psychic energy.

3. Are the result of the functioning of the ego.

4. All the above answers are correct.

Question 13

Which psychosexual stage is most associated with control?

1. Oral stage.

2. Anal stage.

3. Phallic stage.

4. Genital stage.

Question 14

Which of the following terms refers to an attempt by the psychoanalytic therapist to describe a patient's unconscious conflict?

1. Interpretation.

2. Transfer (transference).

3. Projection.

4. Insight.

Question 15

Freud thought the human psyche operated as a ...

1. Plow.

2. Hydraulic system.

3. Telescope.

4. Scientist.

Question 16

A conflict between ego and superego is experienced as ...

1. Objective fear.

2. Neurotic anxiety.

3. Moral fear.

4. Psychological anxiety.

Question 17

Apologies or acceptable explanations for unacceptable behavior are an example of ...

1. Reaction formation.

2. 'Displacement'.

3. Rationalization.

4. Projection.

Open questions

Question 1

What three parts does the psyche have, according to Freud?

Question 2

What is the therapy Freud developed called?

Question 3

What psychosexual stages does Freud distinguish in childhood?

Question 4

What basic urges are, according to Freud, underlying psychic energy?

Question 5

According to which mechanisms do the id, ego and superego work?

Question 6

What types of anxiety does Freud distinguish?

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

B. Fixation.

Question 2

C. The unconscious plays an important role in human functioning.

Question 3

A. Rationalization.

Question 4

A. 'Survival' selection.

Question 5

C. Darwin (libido, thanatos).

Question 6

A. Interpretation.

Question 7

D. Unconscious desires fulfilled by fantasies.

Question 8

D. Always remains constant.

Question 9

B. tells something about someone's unconscious.

Question 10

C. Superego.

Question 11

B. Libido.

Question 12

D. All the above answers are correct.

Question 13

B. Anal stage.

Question 14

A. Interpretation.

Question 15

B. Hydraulic system.

Question 16

C. Moral fear.

Question 17

C. Rationalization.

Answer indication open questions

Question 1

The id, the ego and the superego.

Question 2

Psychoanalysis.

Question 3

Oral phase, anal phase, phallic phase and latency phase.

Question 4

Sex and aggression. The instinct of life (libido) and the instinct of death (thanatos).

Question 5

The id works with primary process thinking, thinking without logic. Dreams and fantasy are examples of this. Fulfilling wishes is central.

The ego works according to the reality principle. The ego understands that the id's wishes sometimes conflict with reality. It works according to the secondary process thinking, developing strategies for solving problems.

The superego is the part of the mind that internalizes the values, morals, and ideals of society.

Question 6

Objective anxiety is fear. This anxiety is a response to threats from the environment. Neurotic anxiety occurs in a conflict between the id and the ego. There is a danger of the ego losing control of an unacceptable desire of the id. Moral anxiety is caused by a conflict between ego and superego. The person wants to meet a certain standard.

How do emotions and personality relate to each other? - ExamTests 13 (2)

MC-questions

Question 1

Which of the following qualities is correlated with hostility?

1. Agreeableness (kindness).

2. Neuroticism.

3. Extraversion.

4. Answer A and B are both correct.

Question 2

Emotional content and emotional style:

1. Correlate at high levels.

2. Correlate at moderate levels.

3. Correlate at low levels.

4. Do not correlate at all.

Open questions

Question 1

What is the difference between an emotional state and an emotional trait?

Question 2

What is emotional content and what is emotional style?

Question 3

Name and explain the two models for the relationship between personality and feeling good / happy.

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

D. Answer A and B are both correct.

Question 2

A. Correlate at high levels.

Answer indication open questions

Question 1

Emotional state is temporary and has more to do with the context of a situation. An emotional pull is a pattern of emotional responses that is consistent across situations.

Question 2

Emotional content is an emotional experience of an individual, which can be divided into pleasant and unpleasant emotions. The emotional style describes how someone experiences emotions and how he / she deals with them.

Question 3

In the direct model, personality is seen as the cause of emotional reactions. In the indirect model, personality creates a certain lifestyle, which subsequently triggers emotional reactions.

How do stress and health affect personality and vice versa? - ExamTests 18 (2)

MC-questions

Question 1

What is an example of a 'daily hassle'?

1. A move.

2. The household.

3. Pregnancy.

4. A new job.

Question 2

Which of the following alternatives is not a model of the relationships between health and behavior?

1. The circumplex model (power - love).

2. The interaction model (disease due to stress) 2y.

3. The transactional model (illness due to stress).

4. The predispositional model (disease due to stress).

Question 3

Which of the following models is not a model in which relationships are established between behavior and health?

1. The circumplex model.

2. The interactional model.

3. The transactional model.

4. The predispositional model.

Open questions

Question 1

What is stress and what are the different types of stress?

Question 2

Explain the phases of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS).

Question 3

Explain the three coping strategies that deal with positive emotions.

Question 4

What are the two cognitive events that must take place to create stress, according to Lazarus?

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

B. The household.

Question 2

A. The circumplex model (power - love).

Question 3

A. The circumplex model.

Answer indication open questions

Question 1

Stress is a subjective feeling that is the result of uncontrollable and threatening events (stressors). These are often extreme situations with unpleasant consequences that cannot be influenced. Stress can be divided into four types: acute stress, traumatic stress, episodic acute stress, and chronic stress.

Question 2

When a person is exposed to stress, a certain pattern of emotional and physiological responses follows. First there is the alarm phase, which consists of the fight or flight response of the sympathetic nervous system. If the stress persists, the resistance phase follows. Resistance to a stressor is offered, but it costs a lot of energy. If the stress still persists, one enters the exhaustion phase. In this phase, people often get sick because their physiological resources are exhausted.

Question 3

First you have the coping strategy called positive revaluation. This is a cognitive process in which someone focuses on good things that happen or have happened. The second strategy is problem focus coping. Here thoughts and behavior are used to manage underlying causes of stress. Finally, there is the creation of positive events. This creates a positive time-out from the stress.

Question 4

These two cognitive events are called the primary valuation and the secondary valuation. The primary appreciation arises because an event puts pressure on a person's personal goals. This should be followed by secondary appreciation where the person realizes that he or she does not have the resources to deal with the event.

What influence does behavior have on health? - ExamTests 3

MC-questions

Question 1

Which statement is incorrect?

1. When someone has an internal locus of control, he will have more good health habits.

2. Access to health care has a positive influence on the development of good health behavior.

3. Higher educated people often have better health habits.

4. None of the above statements are incorrect.

Question 2

Which statement about attitude change is correct?

1. It is best not to include too many statistics in the message.

2. Strong arguments are best communicated in the middle of the message.

3. Messages are best to leave the drawing of conclusions to the people themselves.

4. The more extreme a message, the stronger the effect on the attitude change.

Question 3

Which statement is correct?

1. In general, prevention-oriented messages are best used to implement behavioral change, while promotional-oriented messages work best to maintain change.

2. People with a promotional focus are more sensitive to messages that are framed as benefits, while people with a prevention focus are more sensitive to the stressed risks.

1. Only statement I is correct.

2. Only statement II is correct.

3. Both statements are correct.

4. Both statements are incorrect.

Question 4

According to the health belief model, people with a high degree of ...... are able to maintain certain healthy behaviors.

1. Self-awareness.

2. Self-employment.

Open questions

Question 1

Name the five stages of the trans-theoretical model of behavioral change.

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

D. None of the statements is incorrect.

Question 2

A. It is best not to process too many statistics in the message. Strong arguments can best be communicated at the beginning or end of the message, it is important to make the conclusions explicitly clear and how extreme a message is but to a certain extent has a positive effect on the attitude change.

Question 3

B. Only statement II is correct. Promotion-oriented messages work best for starting behavioral change, while prevention-oriented messages work best to maintain change.

Question 4

B. Self-employment.

Answer indication open questions

Question 1

1. Precontemplation, 2. Contemplation, 3. Preparation, 4. Action, 5. Maintenance.

What is the influence of physical activity, sleep and nutrition on health? - ExamTests 4

MC-questions

Question 1

Which statement is correct?

1. The number of accidents at home is decreasing, but the number of accidents at work has actually increased.

2. Much attention has been paid in recent years to the prevention of traffic accidents through psychological interventions.

1. Only statement I is correct.

2. Only statement II is correct.

3. Both statements are correct.

4. Both statements are incorrect.

Question 2

What percentage of women in the risk group can actually be screened every year for breast cancer?

1. 16%

2. 27%

3. 48%

4. 59%

Question 3

Which body shape poses the most health risks?

1. Apple shape (fat accumulation mostly on the belly).

2. Pear shape (fat accumulation mostly on the hips, buttocks and thighs).

3. Both body forms bring as much risk.

Question 4

The fight against obesity has a great chance of success when advised ...

1. To set a long-term goal (a final goal, for example writing a book).

2. To set a number of short-term goals (for example, writing 1 page every day).

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

D. Both statements are incorrect. The number of accidents at home has actually increased, especially among the elderly, while the number of accidents at work has decreased. Much attention has been paid in recent years to the prevention of traffic accidents, but this was due to the adaptation of traffic rules. Psychological interventions to make people stick to these traffic rules are missing.

Question 2

B. 27%. Of these women who receive a recommendation 59% occasionally (every two years) screen, and only 27% every year.

Question 3

A. Apple shape. Abdominal fat increases the risk of heart disease, diabetes, high blood pressure, cancer and the reduction of cognitive functions.

Question 4

B. Set a number of short-term goals (for example, writing 1 page every day).

MC-questions

Question 1

Which statement is correct?

1. The number of accidents at home is decreasing, but the number of accidents at work has actually increased.

2. Much attention has been paid in recent years to the prevention of traffic accidents through psychological interventions.

1. Only statement I is correct.

2. Only statement II is correct.

3. Both statements are correct.

4. Both statements are incorrect.

Which behavior is harmful to health? - ExamTests 5

MC-questions

Question 1

Which statement is correct?

1. An alcoholic person always suffers from withdrawal symptoms when he stops drinking.

2. A problem drinker is not bothered by withdrawal symptoms and does not have to have any other medical problems, but there are always social problems.

1. Only statement I is correct.

2. Only statement II is correct.

3. Both propositions are correct.

4. Both statements are incorrect.

Question 2

Which statement is correct?

1. Alcoholics and problem drinkers will never be able to learn to drink in moderation, the best is if they do not drink alcohol at all.

2. Drinking in moderation can have a positive effect on health, for example on cardiovascular diseases.

1. Only statement I is correct.

2. Only statement II is correct.

3. Both statements are correct.

4. Both statements are incorrect.

Question 3

What is not a factor that distinguishes a light smoker from a heavy smoker?

1. Light smokers attach more importance to academic success.

2. Light smokers often have supportive home situations.

3. Light smokers often have fewer people around them who smoke.

4. Light smokers have a better idea of ​​how unhealthy smoking is.

Question 4

Someone with high self-esteem ...

1. Avoids assessment situations.

2. Addresses other issues sooner after a failure.

Open questions

Question 1

What is meant by behavioral inoculation?

Answer indication MC-questions

Question 1

A. Only statement I is correct. With problem drinkers, there is indeed no question of physical addiction, but there are social, medical and psychological problems.

Question 2

B. Only statement II is correct. Alcoholics and problem drinkers who are still young, have a job and receive a lot of social support can learn to drink in moderation, assuming they have not been drinking for too long. This has the advantage that it is a more realistic form of drinking behavior than total abstinence.

Question 3

D. Light smokers have a better idea of ​​how unhealthy smoking is. This is not a factor that distinguishes light smokers from heavy smokers. This is precisely a characteristic that they share with heavy smokers: light smokers have the same attitudes and health beliefs about smoking as heavy smokers.

Question 4

B. Addresses other issues sooner after a failure.

Answer indication open questions

Question 1

Behavioral inoculation means that someone will hear a weak version of an argument, so that he can come up with counter-arguments against it. This makes him stronger in his shoes when he hears a stronger version of that argument.